Recent comments in /f/explainlikeimfive

michilio t1_jebn56y wrote

Reply to comment by BadAtNameIdeas in ELI5: how can the female to male population be almost 1:1 but men die more than women and the birth rate of men and women is almost equal (and the fisher principle doesn’t make sense because men have a higher death rate so how can it even out)? by noobia0009

I was joking but there´s always the weird stories..

So nobody gets to be declared dead twice?

Well maybe not this one

Or this one

In wartime there´s also a chance

Or This

And this

1

twist3d7 t1_jebmhi9 wrote

Reply to comment by mynewaccount4567 in ELI5: how can the female to male population be almost 1:1 but men die more than women and the birth rate of men and women is almost equal (and the fisher principle doesn’t make sense because men have a higher death rate so how can it even out)? by noobia0009

Did anyone poke Jesus with a stick to make sure he was dead? No they did not. Those ancient people knew nothing. Jesus will NOT be coming back because he knows someone will poke him with a stick.

3

Flair_Helper t1_jeblrnq wrote

Reply to ELI5 Why haven't scientists cloned extinct animals such as the dodo, the Caspian tiger, etc.? by LesChatsVerts

Please read this entire message

Your submission has been removed for the following reason(s):

Loaded questions, or ones based on a false premise, are not allowed on ELI5. A loaded question is one that posits a specific view of reality and asks for explanations that confirm it. These usually include the poster's own opinion and bias, but do not always - there is overlap between this and parts of Rule 2. Note that this specifically includes false premises.

If you would like this removal reviewed, please read the detailed rules first. If you believe this submission was removed erroneously, please use this form and we will review your submission.

1

explainlikeimfive-ModTeam t1_jebkvna wrote

Reply to ELI5: how can the data gathered by Google, tiktok, Instagram etc etc be used to harm me? by DuckoPond

Please read this entire message

Your submission has been removed for the following reason(s):

  • Rule #2 - Questions must seek objective explanations

  • Information about a specific or narrow issue (personal problems, private experiences, legal questions, medical inquiries, how-to, relationship advice, etc.) are not allowed on ELI5 (Rule 2).

If you would like this removal reviewed, please read the detailed rules first. If you believe this submission was removed erroneously, please use this form and we will review your submission.

1

MrUnlucky-0N3 t1_jebkqmq wrote

Reply to comment by 85_bears in Eli5 what is it in the food of fast food restaurants that makes it bad e.g. being linked to cancer / mental problems. Does it have a negative impact on the gut flora? I’m not talking like sugary food more like actual food KFC- chicken, McDonald’s beef patty etc by Reasonable-Umpire-93

Unless the comment has been edited, correlation not being equal to causation is a reasonable answer in my opinion.

2

hisglasses66 t1_jebklf4 wrote

Reply to ELI5: how can the female to male population be almost 1:1 but men die more than women and the birth rate of men and women is almost equal (and the fisher principle doesn’t make sense because men have a higher death rate so how can it even out)? by noobia0009

More than a few of the most populous countries on earth still prefer boys over girls. And we sort of know what happens after that. I’m thinking China, India…maybe Bangladesh? Pakistan.

2

Tsashimaru t1_jebke0r wrote

Reply to ELI5: how can the female to male population be almost 1:1 but men die more than women and the birth rate of men and women is almost equal (and the fisher principle doesn’t make sense because men have a higher death rate so how can it even out)? by noobia0009

Women can give birth and also are naturally necessary for child rearing although many varying circumstances dictate actual living situations and conditions. Genetically speaking this means women are more necessary than men on survival terms for life itself. Men only donates the other half of a complete set of chromosomes in order to make another human. After that job is done genetics say the male is less necessary than the woman in terms of genetic survival. Many species such as in the insect kingdom the males die off after reproduction.

0

BadAtNameIdeas t1_jebk67t wrote

Reply to comment by aLovverincombat in ELI5: how can the female to male population be almost 1:1 but men die more than women and the birth rate of men and women is almost equal (and the fisher principle doesn’t make sense because men have a higher death rate so how can it even out)? by noobia0009

Assuming they mean you can be “dead” but resuscitated immediately. It makes a great story and technically it’s a true statement, but you don’t get a death certificate for your heart stopping for 10 seconds. You are only recorded as dead once.

3

mynewaccount4567 t1_jebjyjr wrote

Reply to comment by aLovverincombat in ELI5: how can the female to male population be almost 1:1 but men die more than women and the birth rate of men and women is almost equal (and the fisher principle doesn’t make sense because men have a higher death rate so how can it even out)? by noobia0009

  1. Jesus
  2. I guess people who’s hearts stop, are then revived, then die for good sometime later.

I don’t think these groups are large enough to meaningfully affect the gender balance statistics.

2

aLovverincombat t1_jebjmfr wrote

Reply to comment by XsNR in ELI5: how can the female to male population be almost 1:1 but men die more than women and the birth rate of men and women is almost equal (and the fisher principle doesn’t make sense because men have a higher death rate so how can it even out)? by noobia0009

Yeah, I also remember reading somewhere that the mortality rate for women giving birth in the US is the highest in the “first world”. Considering the costs associated with it too, it’s outrageous.

It’s not something that will be effectively addressed the way things are right now either.

2

Throwaway08080909070 t1_jebjlbr wrote

Reply to ELI5: how can the data gathered by Google, tiktok, Instagram etc etc be used to harm me? by DuckoPond

I think the more interesting question is how this data has actually been used to harm you, if it has.

For decades now there have been endless warnings of an emerging "surveillance state" just a step away from 1984, but... where is the harm being done? Where are the disappearances, the discrimination based on it, the equivalent of the social credit scores?

It just seems to be used for law enforcement and advertising we can all block for free.

2

Kayback2 t1_jebjl5h wrote

Reply to ELI5 what’s the point of safewords? by sieis

They are very situationally dependant. If you are doing something where you might say stop, but not actually mean stop then you need a word that is code for "I need this action to cease now" without spoiling the fun.

Most people can get through their lives without ever needing a safe word, for sex. In anything but a niche situation stop means stop, no means no.

But if you're doing something like some dom/sub thing where the sub is not allowed to say no, then saying it will just make things "worse" for the sub, which can be all part of the fun and games. But you might need the dom to stop, so you have a code word that will bring things to a halt.

You can use a traffic light system where one code word means this is heading to territory I am uncomfortable with so tone it down, but don't stop and the stop-stop. A stop-stop safe word means thing come to an abrupt halt. This can include things like destroying BDSM gear to release the person who called a stop and getting them out of whatever situation ASAP. As an example I had to use my rescue knife to cut a brand new rope my wife and I were using recently because something went wrong and she was in real pain, not just tied up. While that isn't the same as a stop-not-meaning-stop safeword they can be used for myriad reasons.

My wife and I have a set of words for normal every day situations that means get-me-out-of-here that either can invoke when needed.

1

Flair_Helper t1_jebittv wrote

Reply to ELI5 what’s the point of safewords? by sieis

Please read this entire message

Your submission has been removed for the following reason(s):

Straightforward or factual queries are not allowed on ELI5. ELI5 is meant for simplifying complex concepts.

If you would like this removal reviewed, please read the detailed rules first. If you believe this submission was removed erroneously, please use this form and we will review your submission.

1

Erdnuss_Gallery t1_jebisvi wrote

Reply to ELI5 what’s the point of safewords? by sieis

Because we humans like to take things a bit further. Like when you're a kid and dad starts tickling you. You are laughing but what him to stop, yet he continues to tickle you because it's fun.

As we get older, we continue to push buttons and take things one step further, thinking it's out of fun, but not always recognizing when stop means a genuine stop and the person will be upset after vs stop meaning an acknowledgement of not being comfortable but pushing forward means helping them move past their comfort level.

So having something completely unrelated let's both parties know when things need to stop completely.

I think a safe word also makes for a non-mood killing way of saying no. If "no" can mean "stop...don't stop...stop...don't stop..." In a teasing way, and it also means "stop because I'm not comfortable with will get upset if you don't stop" then the only way to differentiate between the two is tone.

And if you are having sexy time with a partner, and they push your boundaries where you start saying no. But they continue to tease and push, you will eventually aggressively say no, which then kills your sexy-mood. Thus ending sexy time completely and putting a bit of a wall between you and your partner.

But if instead you can say, "Oranges!" Your partner gets the idea ASAP and you can both tone it back a bit without actually killing the mood and without your boundaries feeling pushed too far.

I hope that helps.

1

Cyclonitron t1_jebi8nm wrote

Reply to ELI5 what’s the point of safewords? by sieis

Consensual non-consent (CNC for short) is a form of sexual role-play where one of the willing partners is going to resist the sexual activity; part of the thrill for that person is being overpowered and forced to do something against their will. They may fight back, try to get away, tell their partner to stop, even though they don't actually want their partner to stop because it's all part of the role-play. The purpose of a safeword is to have an unambiguous word (almost always non-sexual, e.g. "pineapple") the resisting partner can use to indicate they really do want the activity to stop.

1

Tekhead001 t1_jebhsq4 wrote

Reply to ELI5 what’s the point of safewords? by sieis

Sometimes, especially during rough sex, once the adrenaline starts flowing and people are going at it, things get said. Sometimes people say the word stop when they're just living out a fantasy of consensual non-consent. It's important to have a safe word that is something that is almost impossible to say in the heat of passion, when communication becomes difficult.

1

OccludedFug t1_jebhscp wrote

Reply to ELI5 what’s the point of safewords? by sieis

A person might be saying "don't stop!"
which could be unclear, especially if they're ecstatic: "Don't! Stop!"
whereas crying out "pepsi" (completely unrelated) is an unmistakable demand

2